Rachel Weeping
“Then Herod, when he saw that he had been tricked by the wise men, was in a furious rage, and he sent and killed all the male children in Bethlehem and in all that region who were two years old or under, according to the time which he had ascertained from the wise men. Then was fulfilled what was spoken by the prophet Jeremiah: “A voice was heard in Ramah, wailing and loud lamentation, Rachel weeping for her children; she refused to be consoled, because they were no more.” Matt. 2:16-18
According to the typographical characters used in Jeremiah this verse stands alone. It does not go with the verses in front of it or after it. It can truly be pulled out and used by itself.
“ Thus says the LORD: “A voice is heard in Ramah, lamentation and bitter weeping. Rachel is weeping for her children; she refuses to be comforted for her children, because they are not.” Jer. 31:15
Some people will claim that their Hermeneutics is to interpret prophecy literally; yet when ask about Jer 31:15 will immediately switch to symbolism because it is fulfilled and therefore must be symbolic.
Literally Rachel was the mother of Joseph and Benjamin, Joseph would later be split into the two half tribes of Manasseh and Ephraim.
But these murders by Herod happened in Bethlehem of JUDAH, of the tribe of Judea, the forth son of Leah not during the lifetime of Benjamin and Joseph or even in their territory.
When the futurist methods are put to the test they are found wanting.
You make an interesting point. Recently I read 1 Corinthians 9:9 and then went to Deuteronomy 25:4. I was surprised and a little disturbed at how this verse did not seem to fit with the surrounding verses. I understood Paul’s point, but found it a stretch for him to use the verse from Deuteronomy to make his point. Is this something God does often in Scripture? Does it have a name or is it identified by Bible scholars in a topical way?
The theologians will say that, we have it on “apostolic authority” that this is the interpretation.
Laurel